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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 00:35

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

Is crossdressing being a transvestite?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Is it appropriate for parents to discipline their child in public if the child is being rude, disrespectful, and unruly towards them? Why or why not?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.